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11-02-05 12:59 PM
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Acmlm's Board - I2 Archive - World Affairs / Debate - Prison systems/Death sentences | |
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knuck

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Posted on 10-09-05 01:02 AM Link | Quote
Originally posted by ziratha
Word 'God' written a bunch of times.
tl;dr
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
ziratha

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Posted on 10-09-05 08:18 PM Link | Quote
Uhm, where exactly did that quote come from, cause i looked in my post, and I dont see it anywhere... Maybe its a misquote?

Perhaps a little more explanation of what it is in particular that you are argueing with would help.
alte Hexe

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Posted on 10-09-05 09:04 PM Link | Quote
But contractual law has, historically, been based on the foundational religious laws of the Goths in Germany (wergald) as well as other 'barbarian' tribes around Europe (Norse, Slavs, Magyars, etc.), the Babylonians under Hammurabi, the Jews with Moses and Pagan Greece. Therefore our contractual laws DO have a basis in morality. Even Mediaeval philosophers like my beloved Aquinas wrote on economic issues...from a moralistic stand-point! And Aquinas is the basis for most law in Europe!

Only since liberal (traditionalist liberal) ideals emerge as a strength in the 1700s did they become integrated into our legal system, but our legal system still smacks of ye olde religious laws.
ziratha

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Posted on 10-09-05 09:33 PM Link | Quote
Yes, but consider this.

A frail old woman agrees to pay a man for services she doesn't really need, Maybe the man even sought her out and convinced her she needed them But never actually does anything illegal to convince her of this. He provides said services and asks her to pay up. She cant for whatever reason and he sues her. Who wins?

The average person would say that morally, the old woman is in the right. But legally and generally, she will be made to pay. Why?

Because morality does not enter the equation

Morality may be the basis for it, but that does not mean it enters the equation.
Consider this, You have two sheep, You buy 3 more. How many sheep do you now have?

Well, you have 2+3=5 right? But note, no sheep are in the previous equation. Because, although sheep may be the cause and basis for the equation, the equation itself does not take into account said sheep. It would be the same equation adding bears or cows or people or oranges.

Another example. You take a rubber ball, you throw it at the wall, it bounces, you catch it. Isn't the ball based on and made up of matter and atoms? So then when you talk about the ball hitting the wall and bouncing, you generally do not need to take into account the fact that the ball is made of said atoms or so many atoms, or the type of atoms. All you need to know is certain qualities of the ball itself, Qualities that could theoretically occur with matter of a type other than rubber.


Once again, just because something is the basis or beggining or cause of something else does not mean that cause is always accounted for in interactions with the caused thing.
alte Hexe

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Posted on 10-09-05 10:45 PM Link | Quote
Does strawman need a brain?
ziratha

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Posted on 10-10-05 01:53 AM Link | Quote
Sigh... insulting someone is not the best way to prove them wrong. If I have made a logical fallacy, state the fallacy name, the definition, and explain in as much needed detail exactly how my statement is the fallacy you claim. Any other form will be unaccepted. We invite you to try again. Any questions or comments may be dirrected to out mail service in written form in triplicate.

Anyway, I was not suggesting they were so much like my previous statements nor were they the argument you stated. But more as exceptions to your argument, cases in which your arguemtn loses it's strengh. It is generally a reasonable thing to assume that if some statement or arguement causes an absurd case then that arguement or statement is faulty And must be cast away. This is what I meant to demonstrate, that morals, even though they are the basis for contract law, the morals themselves do not nesasarily need to enter the equation. Note the example of the old frail woman.

What is morally right is not always what is legal, so what is legal does not always correspond to what is moral. Therefore an attempt to define or link one with the other may in many cases work it does have exceptions which lead to absurdities which means the arguement is ultimately faulty.

Once again, An insult is itself a logical fallacy:

Attacking the Person:
under the title of changing the subject.

Clearly, "Does straw man need a brain?" Seems like an insult to me... Of course, I could be wildly mistaken as happens to everyone.


(edited by ziratha on 10-09-05 05:04 PM)
(edited by ziratha on 10-09-05 05:06 PM)
(edited by ziratha on 10-09-05 05:24 PM)
SamuraiX

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Posted on 10-10-05 04:10 AM Link | Quote
Back on topic, the prison system is really messed up. We make a place for criminals to live, but not our poor...we consider tobbaco and alcohol good, but other drugs bad. People who kill people should be doing something useful, like cleaning out sewers, not basking in a nice cell for a couple years.
ziratha

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Posted on 10-10-05 05:07 AM Link | Quote
Excellent point, Why should we pay for them, If a person were sufficently poor, they might actually commit a crime to be given these commodities. Wouldn't it be better to make the criminals build houses or appartments for those poor?
geeogree

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Posted on 10-10-05 06:05 AM Link | Quote
the logistical problems involved with having them do stuff like that are huge

you would have to pay enough people to guard the prisoners working.... adding to the costs that you already have...

sure, would make them more useful.... but it would quite possibly increase the number of escapes....
Dracoon

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Posted on 10-10-05 06:39 AM Link | Quote
Fences around the area first, then build.
Arwon

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Posted on 10-10-05 11:41 AM Link | Quote
People *are* aware that crime is on a steady downward trend in most parts of the developed world, right?

Why are people MORE scared and worked up about crime now when there's LESS crime? Why the tone of urgency and hysteria and crisis? What's so wrong with the criminal justice system that people feel it needs to be fundamentally dumped and overhauled?

I submit that this "crime crisis" has been blown all out of proportion by a sensationalist media and a paranoid population.
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